APPSC 2026 GROUP I MAINS EXAM and GROUP II MAINS EXAM Study Material: January 2024

Monday, 29 January 2024

APPSC Group 2 Exam 2024 Material for Screening Test : GS & Mental Ability :Structure of Indian Society :Topic : Family (Part 2)

APPSC GROUP 2 EXAM 2024

MATERIAL FOR SCREENING TEST

GENERAL STUDIES AND MENTAL ABILITY (150M)

INDIAN SOCIETY :

STRUCTURE OF INDIAN SOCIETY

TOPIC : FAMILY (Part 2)

Note: The following material is for guidance purpose . The readers are advised to refer to Original Text books, to clarify any doubt.

Evolution of Family and Societies:

According to Morgan the institution of Family has passed through fifteen stages of development.

Among them five main stages are as follows:

1.Consanguine family:This was the early stage of family when there was sexual promiscuity and marriage between blood relations was not forbidden.

2.Punaluant family : This was the second stage of family when group marriage was prevalent and all brothers of a group marry all sisters of another group.

3.Syndasmian family : In this stage one man married one woman, but he was also free to establish sex relations with other women married in the family.

4.Patriarchal family: In this stage man’s ascendancy and dominance is the family had fully achieved. He could marry many women and had sex relations with them.

5.Monogamous family: This is the present stage of family in which one man can marry one woman and vice versa.

Sl.No.	Type of Family	Place where such type of families are living	Families of ……
1	Patrilineal	North-Western Himalaya region	Gujjars, Goddis and Pangawals of Jammu and Kashmir and Himachal Pradesh
2	Polyandry but are of patrilineal type	Khas of Uttar Pradesh
3	Patriliny		Tharus
4	Matrilineal	North Eastern Himalaya	Garos and Khasis
5	Patriarchal		Mikirs
6	Patriarchal		Mizos
7	Double descent		Kachharis (Sons descend on father line ; daughters on mother line)
8	Patrilocal Patrilineal Patriarchal Patrinymic	All middle India, all tribe of Bihar	Santal, Munda, Oraon, Ho , Gond Bhil, Kol, Kharia
	-do-	Odisha and Madhya Pradesh	-do-
	Patrilineal and Patriarchal	Western India	Bhils, Minas, Mahadeu Kolis, Varlis, Koknes, Thakurs, Kothodis, Koli Malhars, Kili Dhors, Dublas, Gamits etc.
9	Matrilineal	In South India i.e, Tribes in Kerala	Nayar, Kurichchians, Kundu vadians, Malayaurs
10	Matriarchal	Tribes of Tamil Nadu	Toda of Nilgiri area

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FORMS AND TYPES OF FAMILY

Types of family can be classified on the following four basis :-

1)Forms of mating Relationship : Form of mating relationship can be :-

i)Monogamy

ii)Polygamy i.e., Polygandry or Polygamy group marriage etc.

2)Selection of Mates : Endogamy or Exogamy

3)Reconing Descent : Patrilineal or Matrilineal

4)Form of the Family Circle:

i)Nuclear

ii)Conjugal

iii)Joint Consaguineiious etc.

5)Family orientation and family procreation

6)On the basis of Residence :

i)Matrilocal

ii)Patrilocal

iii)Analogical

iv)Neolocal etc.

1)Family of orientation : The family in which one is born

2)Family of procreation : The family formed after marriage

3)Consanguineous family : The consanguine arrangement has been pictured as a ‘nucleus

of blood relatives surrounded by a fine of spouses’,

the brothers and sisters representing the core of the family unit

4)Nuclear Family : Consists of husband, wife and unmarried children

5)Joint Family : Joined family is defined as nuclear family plus all kins

belonging to the side of husband and/ or wife living

in one homestead

6)Extended Family : Refers to a family system in which several generations live in one

household .

The term Extended Family is used instead of the term joint family

to indicate that the combination of two or more nuclear families

is based on an extension of the father-son relationship while the

matrilineally extended family is based on the mother-daughter

relationship.

The extended family may also be extended horizontal extended

family is called fraternal or collateral family

7)Monogamous family :In such family one man has only one wife at a time

8)Polyandrous family :Family in which one woman is married with several men

9)Patriarchal family :In such a family authority is vested in the eldest male member of the family

10) Matriarchal Family : In such a family authority vests in the eldest female members of the family

(e.g. in Khasis authority rests in the grandmother)

11)Patrilocal family :In such type of family wife goes to stay in the husband’s house

12)Matrilocal family :In such type of family husband goes to stay in wife’s house

13)Avunculocal : In this type of family, the couple in maternal uncle’s house

14)Neolocal :In such type of family the couple create a new house for themselves

15)Patrilineal family :Inheritance and descent rules follow the male line

16)Matrilineal family :Inheritance or descent rules follow the female line

17)Patrivirilocal :Refers to the residence of a couple after marriage with the husband’s father

18)Supplemented nuclear family:

:Refers to a nuclear family plus one or more unmarried, separated or widowed

relatives of the parents, other than unmarried children.

19)Subnuclear family :is identified as a fragment or part of the former nuclear family e.g. a widow /

widower with his / her unmarried children or siblings (unmarried or widowed

or separated or divorced living together .

20)Supplemented Sub Nuclear Family :

:Refers to a group of relatives , members of a formerly complete nuclear family

along with some other unmarried, divorced or widowed relative who was not

a member of the nuclear family.

21)Domestic group and family :

Domestic group and family are different terms with many differences from

sociological point of view .

According to Kar, a domestic group may be defined as a group of people who

habitually share a common dwelling and a common food supply. These minimal

activities of domestic group may be greatly extended , and , as a result of

domestic groups may vary in size and stability.

Thus, domestic group may be made up of individuals between whom no kinship

Exist.

Conversely, members of one family may be distributed over two or more

Domestic groups.

‘Peter’ and ‘Genitor’: Peter and Genitor are two separate terms. Peter connotes the social fatherhood

while Genitor mean the biological fatherhood. The difference became clear

from the study of Todas and Nuers.

In Todas, the bow and arrow ceremony is performed to determine social

and legal fatherhood.

In Nuers, a widow can marry a person but the children born will be

considered children of the dead man.

Sunday, 28 January 2024

Group 2 Material for Screening Test : Structure of Indian Society : Topic : Family (Part 1)

APPSC GROUP 2 EXAM 2024

MATERIAL FOR SCREENING TEST

GENERAL STUDIES AND MENTAL ABILITY (150M)

INDIAN SOCIETY

STRUCTURE OF INDIAN SOCIETY

TOPIC : FAMILY

(Part 1)

Note: The following material is for guidance purpose . The readers are advised to refer to Original Text books, to clarify any doubt.

The family is based on simple and obvious facts.

It involves the recognition of just those who are closely related to ones self through constant physical contiguity, physical co-operation, emotional bonds, and blood ties.

In view of the basic deterministic drives, the satisfaction of which only a grouping like the family makes possible, and must have in the past made possible , the conclusion is apparent , that the family must have been always existent, coeval with human culture .

The sex and hunger urges, the economic compulsions, and the cultural traditions have everywhere provided the theoretical justification for the recognition of the existence of the family.

As soon as there is some permanency in sex relations and co-operative economy endeavor, a family comes automatically into existence.

The birth of offspring cements and integrates family ties.

Family definition:

A social group, consisting of members related either through blood ties or marriages and who also are bound together by legal, moral and economic rights and duties.

1)K.Davis:

“Family is a group of persons whose relations to one another are based upon consanguinity and who are therefore kin to one another.”

2)MacIver:

“Family is a group defined by a sex relationship sufficiently precise and enduring to provide for the procreation and upbringing of children.”

3)M.F.Nimkoff:

“Family is a more or less durable association of husband and wife with or without children, or of a man or woman alone, with children.”

4)Sumner :

“Family is a miniature social organization, including atleast two generations, and is charachteristically formed upon the blood bond.”

5)The American Bureau of the Census :

“Family is a group of two or more persons related by blood, marriage, or adoption and residing together, all such persons are considered as members of one family .”

6)Irawati Karve :

“A joint family is a group of people who generally live under one roof, who eat food cooked at one hearth, who hold property in common and who participate in common worship and are related to each other as some particular type of kindred.”

7) Henry Maine :

“The Hindu Joint Family is a group constituted of known ancestors and adopted sons and relatives related to these sons through marriage .”

*****************************************************************

FEATURES OF THE FAMILY

1)Universality :

In view of the fact that all the aspects of an individual’s life, ranging from deterministic biological to deterministic cultural , are considerably influenced and made possible by the family grouping.

Family is found all over the world and at all levels of culture.

Modern civilization has not so far succeeded in providing a complete and fully satisfying substitute for this grouping.

2)Emotional Basis :

The integrative bonds in a family are mutual affection, love and blood ties. This emotional basis of the family makes it ideally suited to perform the all important role of early education , which makes it an institution of considerable importance as a transmitter of culture.

3) Educative Role:

The most plastic years of every individuals life, that is , his childhood, are spent in his family. It is here that he gets the earliest and most fundamental lessons in socialization. He is mentally formed according to the norms of society, which get engrained in him to re-appear in his adult life as conscience or super-ego.

4)Limited Size:

In the smallest in size compared to all other social groupings, and enables closer contacts amongst its members.

5)Nuclear Position :

With regard to all the different types of groupings, the family plays an important role in so far as it prepares the individual for participation in all these secondary groups, for their demands and situations.

SENSE OF RESPONSIBILITY AMONG MEMBERS :

1)Social Regulation :

Society , that is the collectively , keeping the collective and wider view in mind, has to ensure , by evolving mores and folkways , that the individual members in a family do perform all those functions towards each other on the basis of which the wider network of social relationships is dependent for its success. Thus, for example, there are social restrictions on divorce in varying intensity , in almost every society.

PERSISTENCE AND CHANGE :

FAMILY AS APROCESS:

1.Formative

2.Nuptial

3.Post nuptial

*************************************************************

Different forms of family :

Lewis Morgan has postulated a sequential growth of the institution of family.

Morgan listed five different forms of family, each kind is associated with a corresponding and distinctive type of marriage :

1)The Consanguine Family

2)Punaluan Family

3)The Syndyasmian Family

4)The Patriarchal Family

5)The Monogamnian Family

FAMILY : OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

Compiled by :Praturi Potayya Sarma ,MA,LLB,PGDIRPM

Note: The following are model questions. The readers are advised to refer to Original Text books, to clarify any doubt.

1)Family is rooted in _________

a)Human nature

b)Human biological weakness

c)Human wisdom

d)Sub-human trends

Ans : b

2)Which of the following characteristics is not essential to a family _______

a)Mating relationship

b)Form of marriage

c)Common residence

d)Residence after marriage

Ans : c

3)Which of the following is not an essential attribute of modern family?

a)Freedom from wider kinship network

b)Decline of religious control of family

c)Extra marital sex relations

d)Smaller sizer of the family

Ans : c

4)Which of the following is not a characteristic of Matriarchal family ?

a)Matrilineal descent

b)virilocal residence

c)Matriprotestal authority

d)Matrilineal inheritance of property

Ans:c

5.Which of the following typological category represents residence as the basis?

a)Matrilineal family

b)Natural family

c)Polygynous family

d)Neolocal family

Ans : d

6)Match the following ?

a)Virilocal residence:

of Patrilocal residence : (i)Couple residing with husband’s father’s family

b)Neolocal residence : (ii)Couple residing in new residence after marriage

c)Avanculocal residence: (iii)Couple reside with family of husband’s maternal uncle

d)Uxorilocal residence:

or Matrilocal rersidnece : (iv)Husband leaves his family and goes to reside with

the family of his wife

Ans: All the above

7)Mark out what family is not ?

a)Family in kingroup

b)Family is an institution

c)Family is a primary group

d)Family is a reference group

Ans : d

8)Who categorized family as a Primary Group?

a)Sumner

b)MacIver

c)Kingsley Davis

d)C.H.Cooley

Ans : d

9)Mark the incorrect statement .

Extended family is ____________________

a)A collection of a number of nuclear families

b)A common residence of many generations together

c)A working arrangement of members of more than two generations

d)Itr is a group bound by direct descent

Ans: d

10)Which of the following statements is snot true?

a)Family is a biological statement is not true

b)Family is a system of relatioships existing between the parents and children

c)Family is a group defined by social relations

d)Family is a group of persons whose relations to one – another are based upon religion

Ans: d

11)Which of the following statements Is not true ?

a)Family is a universal social group

b)Family is absent among nomadic tribes

c)Family is both, an association as well as an institution

d)Family is the nucleus of all other Social Groups

Ans: b

12)Which of the following statements is correct?

a)Family has passed through the similar stages in process of change in all societies

b)Family has not followed a single course of change

c)The earliest type of family was matriarchal family

d)There was no family in the earliest stage of humanity

Ans : b

13)Which of the following is not the basis of classification of family ?

a) Ancestry

b)Religion

c)Structure

d)Residence

Ans : b

14)Family has a key role in society because

a)It provides recreation to its members

b)It adds to the economic growth of the society

c)It moulds individual’s personality

d)It provides the means of sex satisfaction

Ans : c

15)Which of the following is not a feature of Modern Family ?

a)Economic independence

b)Decline of religious control

c)Corporate character

d)Small size

Ans : c

16)Which of the following is not a feature of joint family in India?

a)Joint ownership of property

b)Indivisibility of cultivation of land

c)Corporate structure

d)Small size

Ans : d

17)Joint Family system is criticized because

a)It denies independence to newly wed couples

b)Prevents division of property

c)For its exploitative and undemocratic character

d)It becomes a refuge for idlers

Ans: c

18)Mark which is not the characteristic feature of the primitive family ?

a)It is bigger in size

b)It is bound by wider kingship network

c)It is a consumption unit

d)None of these

Ans : c

19)Matrilineal family is found in India among the _______

a)Gonds of Madhya Pradesh

b)Kadars of Malabar forest in South India

c)Khasis of Meghalaya

d)Tods of South India

Ans: c

20)Which of the following factors is not a cause for the disintegration of joint family system?

a)Industrial development

b)Uncontrolled procreation

c)Modern Education

d)Expansion of means of transpotation and communication

Ans: b

Thursday, 11 January 2024

GENERAL QUESTIONS ON SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY

GENERAL QUESTIONS ON SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY

( BASED ON BOOKS PRESCRIBED IN SCHOOLS FOR PHYSICAL SCIENCE)

PHYSICS

OUR UNIVERSE – GRAVITATION:

1) Copernican theory is also known as _____________________________

Ans : Helio centric theory

2) Mass (M) of earth is _________

Ans: 6 x 10²⁴ Kg

3) Radius of earth is ______________

Ans: 6.4 x 10⁶ m

4) the value of ‘g’ on the earth in S.I. system is _____________

Ans : 9.8 m/s2

5) The value of ‘g’ on the moon is ____________

Ans : 1.67 m/s ²

6) the value of ‘g’ on the sun is ______________

Ans : 27.4 m/s²

7) The force that keeps the planets in their orbits is the _______ of the sun

Ans : gravitational force

8) The moon makes one revolution about the earth in ______ days

Ans : 27.3

9) The distance of the moon from the earth is about ___________ KMs

Ans: 3.85 x 10⁵

10) The basis of Newton’s Laws of universal gravitation is ___________

Ans : Kepler’s Laws

11) Orbiting around the sun in circular orbits is first proposed by _______

Ans : Copernicus

12) The path of a planet around the sun is ________

Ans : elliptical

13) The value of ‘g’ at the poles of the earth is _______

Ans : maximum

14) The value of ‘g’ at the equator is __________

Ans : minimum

15) 1 Kilogram weight on earth is equal to _________

Ans : 9.8 Newtons

16) The orbital velocity required for an object to go round the earth is _______

Ans : around 8 km/sec

17) Escape velocity of an object, to go out of the gravitational pull of the earth is _____

Ans : 11.2 Km/sec

18) Ecape velocity of an object, to go out of the gravitational pull of the sun is ________

Ans : about 42 KM/sec

19) Mass of a body anywhere in the world is __________

Ans : same

DYNAMICS:

1) Circular motion is a special case of ______

Ans : rotator motion

2) If the string of whirling stone is cut, the stone moves in ___________

Ans: tangential

3) In a uniform circular motion the angular velocity is __________

Ans : constant

4) Centre seeking force is called as ______________

Ans : Centripetal force

5) Centrifugal force means __________

Ans : centre fleeing force or a force directed away from the centre

6) Newton’s laws are valid in _______ frame of reference.

Ans : inertial

7) The study of motion of a body under the action of force is called __________

Ans : dynamics

8) Examples for translator motion ______________

Ans (1) motionof a flywheel,(2) motion of earth about its axis

9) Examples for oscillatory motion ______________

Ans : (1) motion of a pendulum

(2) motion of mass attached to a string

10) Earth goes round the sun because of _______ of attraction between them.

Ans : gravitational force

11) The gravitational force of attraction provides the necessary ______ for a satellite revolving round a planet.

Ans : centripetal force

12) When electron revolves round the nucleus in an atom, the centripetal force is provided by the _________ of attraction between them.

Ans : electro static force

13) Centrifugal force is also known as ____________

Ans : fictitious force or pseudo force

14) A _______________ is used to separate particles of higher mass from the lower mass in a given mixture.

Ans : centrifuge

15) When a running car takes a sudden left turn, a man sitting in the back seat falls to the right due to _______ of direction.

Ans : inertia

16) The magnitude of centripetal force and centrifugal force is ______

Ans: same

17) ________ depends on the expected speed of vehicle and the radius of the curvature of the road.

Ans: Banking angle

18) _______ is a body orbiting around another body.

Ans : Satellite

19) Earth goes round the sun because of ________

Ans : gravitational force of attraction

20) The domestic churner works on the principle of a __________

Ans : centrifuge

21) The natural satellite of earth is ________

Ans : Moon

22) Satellites and space stations used for study of planets, stars and _____ in the universe.

Ans : galaxies

23) “The orbinal velocity of an artificial satellite is ________ km/sec.

Ans : about 8 and less than 11

24) ____________ force is a pull on the body towards the centre of a circle.

Ans : Centripetal

25) The principle of launching an artificial satellite into orbit is to sufficient intial _____ speed such that it revolves round the earth at the choosen height.

Ans : horizontal

26) The device used to separate particles of higher mass from those of lower mass in a given mixture _______

Ans : centrifuge

27) A car moves on a curved but level road. The necessary centripetal force on the car is provided by ___________

Ans : friction between the tyres and the road

SIMPLE HARMONIC MOTION :

1) Any motion that repeats itself along the same path in equal intervals of time is called a _________

Ans : periodic motion

2) Periodic motion is also called as _______

Ans : harmonic motion

3) A _____________ is associated with every wave motion.

Ans : simple harmonic motion

4) The time period of a simple pendulum is ____________

Ans : directly proportional to the square root of length

ELECTROMAGNETIC SPECTRUM :

1)What is Spectrum ?

Ans : Spectrum is a group of wave lengths or frequencies.

2) When a ray of sun light falls on a prism, the transmitted light produces a sequence of colours called a _________

Ans : visible spectrum or VIBGYOR

3) The prisms made of ______ are used to defect Infra red radiations.

Ans : rock salt

4) The invisible radiation before violet are called _______

Ultraviolet radiations

5) __________ radiations are characterized by oscillating electric and magnetic fields perpendicular to each other and perpendicular to the direction of propagation.

Ans : electromagnetic

6) The waves travelling with velocity of light and consisting of Oscillating electric and magnetic fields perpendicular to each other and also perpendicular to the direction of their propagation form the __________

Ans : electromagnetic spectrum

7) The wavelength of the Visible spectrum extends from about 0.4 µ m to _______ that is from violet to red colour.

Ans : 0.7 µ m

8) _______________ spectrum is emitted when the excited valence electrons in atoms jump to their normal states.

Ans : Visible

9) _____________ radiations are emitted by atoms or molecules when they change their states of rotational to vibrational motion.

Ans : Infra red

10) _______ radiations can be detected by thermopile

Ans : Infra red

11) Infra red radiations find applications in _________

Ans : physiotherapy

12) Infra red radiations are also used to take photographs of objects in ________

Ans : darkness

13) The wave length of the micro waves are in the range from _________ to ________

Ans: 10 µ m to 1 n m

14) Radio waves have wavelengths from _______ to about _________

Ans : 1 m , 100 KM

15) Radio waves are produced by the electromagnetic oscillators of __________

Ans : low frequency

16) _________ radiations are produced by the high energy transitions of the electrons in atoms

Ans : Ultra violet

17) We are protected from ultraviolet radiations of the sun due to _____ layer in our atmosphere.

Ans: ozone

18) Wave lengths of x-rays range from ______ to ______

Ans : 0.001 nm, 10nm or 0.01 Å m 100 Å

19) ___________ are produced in discrete wavelengths in individual transitions amon g the inner electrons of an atom.

Ans : X-rays

20) X-rays of short wavelengths are also called as __________

Ans : hard x-rays

21) Soft x-rays are used in medical diagnosis called _____________

Ans : radiography

22) x-rays are also used to cure some diseases. This method is called ________

Ans : radio therapy

23) gamma ( γ ) rays are emitted in __________

Ans : radio activity

24) All electromagnetic waves are ____________ in nature .

Ans : transverse

25) The visible spectrum is emitted when excited valence ____ in atoms jump to their normal states.

Ans: electrons

26) The colour of light emitted by a particular substance is characteristic of the ____ of the substance.

Ans : atoms

27) The light emitted from the sun and distant stars give information about the _____ of the matter present in them.

Ans : composition

28) IR means_______

Ans : Infra red

29) Infra red radiations are emitted by _______ when they change their states of rotational or vibrational motion.

Ans : molecules

30) Hot bodies form sources of the _______ radiations

Ans : Infra red

31) IR radiations can be detected by ___________

Ans : Thermopile or bolomometer

32) Microwaves are produced by high frequency electromagnetic _____ in electric circuits

Ans : Oscillators

33) ___________ waves are used in satellite communications

Ans : Micro waves

34) Mapping of the radio emissions from extra terrestrial sources is known as ________

Ans : radio radiations

35) UV means _______

Ans : Ultra violet rays/ ultra violet spectrum

36) RADAR means _________

Ans : Radio detection and ranging

37) The reason of depletion of ozone layer in atmosphere is due to the reactions with ________

Ans: chloro fluro carbons

38) Speed of light in vacuum is ___________

Ans : 3 x 10 ⁸ m/sec

39) Microwaves are often used in _________

Ans : RADAR

40) The type of radiations used in Radar are ________

Ans : Microwaves

SOUND :

1) Speed of sound in air is ________

Ans : 333 mps ( in normal conditions)

2) _____________ is the phenomenon in which if one of the two bodies of the same natural frequency is set into vibration, the other body also vibrates with large amplitude under the influence of the first body.

Ans : Resonance

3) ____________ is not transmitted in stationary waves.

Ans : Energy

4) Sound waves travel in air are ___________ waves

Ans : longitudinal

5) _____________ waves are formed in a resonating air column.

Ans: Stationary

6) The periodic vibrations of decreasing amplitude are called ______ vibrations.

Ans : damped

7) Everybody has its own frequency called ________

Ans : natural frequency

8) Velocity of sound is maximum in ______

Ans : solids ( like iron rods)

9) The velocity of sound in vacuum is ________

Ans : zero

10) When the soldiers cross a suspension bridge they are asked to break their steps to prevent_______

Ans : resonance

11) A tuning fork vibrates when a vibrating tuning fork is brought near it. This is due to _____

Ans : rersonance

12) Velocity of sound on moon is _______

Ans : zero

13) The longest wave is ________

Ans : Radio wave

14) In a resonating air column ____ waves are formed.

Ans : stationary

LIGHT

NATURE OF LIGHT & SOURCES OF LIGHT

1) Newton proposed ________ theory of light

Ans : corpuscles

2) Corpuscles are _____ by the reflecting surface

Ans : repelled

3) Corpuscles are ______ by the refracting surface

Ans : attracted

4) Wave theory of light was proposed by __________

Ans : Huygens

5) According to Newton, the colours of light are due to difference in the ______ of corpuscles.

Ans : different sizes

6) Light rays can be produced from __________ body

Ans : luminous

7) Examples of luminous bodies are _______

Ans: Sun, Stars

8) Maxwell proposed _________ theory of light

Ans : electromagnetic

9) Light consists of radiations called ________

Ans : photons

10) Light waves are ________

Ans : transverse

11) In a ripple tank , crest of the light wave, behaves as _____ lens

Ans : convex

12) In a ripple tank the trough of light wave behaves as ______ lens

Ans : concave

13) In a ripple tank _____ band is formed due to crests

Ans : bright

14) In a ripple tank _____ band is formed due to troughs

Ans : dark

15) Speed of light in vacuum is _________

Ans : 3 x 10 ⁸ m/sec

Visual Photometry:

1) The visual light is an energy on the _______

Ans : flow

2) Example for self luminous body is ________

Ans : Sun

3) Unit of luminous flux is ________

Ans : Lumen

4) Sun light has its maximum radiant energy close to ________

Ans: green light

LASER:

1)Laser stands for __________

Ans : Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation

2) The light used in destroying ICBM is in itself is __________

Ans : Laser

3) First laser was called _________

Ans : pulsed laser

4) The basic scientific principle behind a laser was put forward by ________

Ans : Dr. Charles

5) ICBM stands for _____

Ans : Inter Continental Ballistic Missile

6) The property coherence in Laser is called ________

Ans : temporal coherence

7) Lack of coherence makes ordinary light an ______

Ans : optical noise

8) Coherence makes a laser light _____

Ans : optical music

9) The important characteristic properties of laser are ________

Ans : 1) coherence 2) directionality

3) monochromacity and high intensity

10) Example for monochromatic light is _______

Ans : sodium lamp

11) Laser emits light only in one dirction. This is called _____ of laser light.

Ans: directionality

12) The process of achieving population inversion is called _________

Ans : pumping ( It is a word used in Lasers)

13) The process of electrons being released on their own from the excited states in atoms and emitting incoherent light is called ________

Ans : spontaneous emission

14) _______ are used for bloodless surgery

Ans : Lasers

15) Lasers are used now for __________

Ans : drilling, cutting materials

16) Lasers are used in guided ______ and to deflect enemy target

Ans : missiles

17) Lasers employed in special 3-dimensional photography are called _______

Ans : Holography

18) The development of lasers which helped in establishing a new revolutionary method of communications called __________

Ans : fibre optic communication

19) The spread of wavelength about the maximum intensity is called ______

Ans : Band width

20) Ruby laser is an example for ______

Ans : solid laser

21) Helium – Neon laser is an example for _______

Ans : gaseous laser

22) The three dimensional photography is called _____

Ans : Holography

23) The process of achieving “population inversion” is called_____

Ans : pumping

24) By ______ large energy can be concentrated into an extremely small band width.

Ans : Monochromacity

25) The light from an ordinary light source spreads out uniformly in all directions and forms ______ wave fronts around it.

Ans : spherical

PHYSICS – 3

MAGNETISM :

1) Give examples for magnetic substances?

Ans : Iron, Nickel, Cobalt

2) Give examples for non-magnetic substances?

Ans : Brass, Paper, Wood

3) The property of a magnetism exhibited by magnetic substances has given into the ____ of electron in atoms

Ans : configuration

4) The idea of magnetism was first proposed by ________

Ans : Weber

5) Magnet attracts the iron due to _______

Ans : Induction

6) Magnetic poles always exist in_______

Ans : pairs

7) Two poles of a bar magnet have equal _______

Ans : strength

8) A magnet can be demagnetized by ___________

Ans : tapping o r hammering or heating

9) In soft iron the ailments are distributed easily. Therefore it is used to make _____

Ans : electromagnets

10) _______ is the unit of magnetic pole strength in M.K.S.system

Ans : Weber

11) The unit of an intensity of a magnetic field in C.G.S. system is ______

Ans: Gauss

12) One Tesla is ________

Ans : 10⁴ Gauss

13) When the North Pole of the bar magnet facing North Pole of the earth, the null points are formed on _______

Ans : equatorial line

14) Whe the south pole of the bar magnet facing North Pole on the earth, the null points are formed on ______

Ans : axial line

15) The line joining the two poles is ________

Ans : magnetic axis

Magnetic Properties of Materials :

16) All materials can be classified in to ____________ magnetic materials.

Ans : 1) dia 2) para and 3) ferro

17) Oxygen, solution of salts of nickel, manganese, aluminium, platinum and chromium are some of the ______ substances.

Ans : paramagnetic

18) Iron, Cobalt, Nickel, Gadolinium, Dysprosium, and large number of their alloys are _______ substances.

Ans: ferromagnetic

19) The property of retaining certain amount of intensity of magnetization even after removal of applied magnetic field is called ________

Ans : retentivity

20) ____________ substances are those in which the resultant magnetic moment of individual atoms is zero.

Ans : dia-magnetic

21) Manganese is an example for ____ magnetic material.

Ans : para

22) In each atom _____ revolve round the nucleus in orbits.

Ans : electrons

23) Electron carries _______ charge

Ans : negative

24) The motion of the electrons cause _____ and electric currents to appear in orbit.

Ans : current

25) The electric current produces a _______ field

Ans : magnetic

26) The magnetic field in the atom or molecule behaves as a ________

Ans : magnet

27) The magnet is said to have _______

Ans : magnetic moment

28) The spin motion of an electron also gives rise to a ________

Ans : magnetic behavior

29) When a substance is placed in a magnetic field, the atomic magnets tend to align _____ to the direction of the applied field.

Ans : parallel

30) The cause for magnetism in a steel magnet is due to the ________

Ans : spi of electrons

31) Iron is ferromagnetic below_______

Ans : 770 ° C

32) An electromagnet is made of _________

Ans : soft iron

33) Permanent magnets are made of _______

Ans : steel

34) The magnetism of the atom is due to _____ around nucleus and spin of the electron.

Ans : electrons

35) The ferromagnetic substances are strongly attracted by a _________

Ans : magnet

36) When paramagnetic substance is brought near a magnetic pole of a bar magnet, it develops an opposite or unlike ______ and therefore it is attracted by it.

Ans : pole

37) A paramagnetic substance suspended freely in a magnetic field is attracted towards stronger field and tends align along the direction of the ________

Ans : magnetic field

38) The S.I.Unit of magnetic induction is ________

Ans : Tesla

39) Example of a para magnetic substance is ______

Ans : Oxygen

40) The S.I.Unit of magnetic flux density is _________

Ans : Newton/ampere – metre

41) The magnetic nature of a substance is determined by ________

Ans : Spin of its electrons

42) One Tesla is equivalent to _________

Ans : 10 ⁴ gauss

43) The S.I.unit of magnetic flux is _________

Ans : Weber

44) The magnetism of a magnet may be destroyed by ___________

Ans : tapping, heating, hammering

45) Spontaneous magnetization exists only in __________

Ans: Ferromagnetic substances

46) The exact test for magnetism is _________

Ans : Repulsion

47) Substances very strongly attracted by the magnet , called__________

Ans : Ferromagnets

48) _____ is not a diamagnetic substance

Ans: Iron

49) Air, water, bismuth, gold, alcohol, mercury and hydrogen are some of the _____ substances.

Ans : diamagnetic

50) The S.I.Unit of magnetic moment is _________

Ans : Ampere – meter ²

ELECTRICITY

Simple Electric Circuits:

1) The Unit of electric current is ______

Ans : Amperes

2) Potential difference is measured in _______

Ans : Volts

3) The instrument used for measuring current is _______

Ans : Ammeter

4) Tap-Key is used to make and _______ an electric circuit.

Ans : break

5) The study of electric charges at rest is called ________

Ans: static electricity

6) The study of various effects of electrical charges in motion is called _______

Ans : Current electricity

7) The flow of chargers in a conductor constitutes an ______ in it.

Ans : electric current

8) The current is measured in amperes using an ______

Ans : Ammeter

9) Free electrons are available in_________

Ans : metals

10) Unit of power is ________

Ans : Watt or Joule/Sec

11) When negative terminal of a cell is connected to the positive terminal of the next cell, then the cells are said to be in _____________

Ans : Series

12) When all positive terminals of two or more cells are connected to a single point and similarly all the negative terminals are connected to another single point, then the cells are said to be connected in _________

Ans : Parallel

13) The P.D. of an electrical device or energy source is called its _________

Ans : Voltage

14) Battery or cell is the seat of _______

Ans : e.m.f.

15) E.m.f. is nothing but work done per unit ______ chanrge.

Ans : positive

16) E.M.f. is measured in _______

Ans : Volts

Electrical Resistance:

1) The electrical property of a conductor which opposites the flow of electrons through it is called ________

Ans : Electric resistance

2) _______ are good conductors of electricity

Ans : metals

3) The unit of resistance is _______

Ans : Ohm

4) Metals are good ________

Ans : conductors

5) Metallic nature is due to availability of ________ electrons

Ans : free

6) Metals are good conductors because of free ______

Ans : electrons

7) Resistance opposes the flow of _________

Ans: electrons

8) In a conductor, the flow of current is flow of free ______

Ans : electrons

9) The instrument to measure current is ________

Ans : Ammeter

LAW OF RESISTANCE:

1) The resistance of some semiconductors like ______ changes significantly when exposed to light.

Ans : selenium

2) Addition of _________ changes the resistance of a material.

Ans : impurities

3) Impurities have a marked effect on the resistance of _________

Ans : Semiconductors

HEATING EFFECTS OF ELECTRIC CURRENT:

1) When electric current passes through a resistance, _____ is produced.

Ans : heat

2) _________ of an electrical appliance is defined as the rate at which electrical energy is consumed by it.

Ans : Wattage

3) The units of household consumption of electrical energy are ______

Ans : Kilowatt hour

3) One kilowatt hour =

Ans : 36 x 10 ⁵ watt second

4) According to Joule’s law the amount of work done is directly proportional to ________

Ans : heat produced

5) One Kilo Watt Hour (KWH) =

Ans : 1000 Watt Hours

6) One Watt Hour =

Ans: 3600 Watt – Second

7) Electric Power (P) = Voltage x ________

Ans : current

8) The S.I. unit of electrical energy is _________

Ans : Joule

9) _______________ of an electrical appliance is defined as the rate at which electrical energy is consumed.

Ans : Wattage

10) A heater is marked 1000 W. The energy it consumes in an hour is _________

Ans : One KWH

11) The unit of household consumption of electrical energy is _______

Ans : KWH

12) A bulb of 40 watt is connected with 220 volts. The current flowing through it ______

Ans : 0.18 amp

13) A 200 W heater is used 6 hours daily and the cost of one unit of electricity is 60 paise. The cost of the energy consumed in the month of June is ________

Ans: Rs.216/-

14) If a unit of electricity costs 80 paise, the cost of consumption using ten lamps of each 60 watt in a month of 30 days is __________

Ans : 90 KHW or Units

FARADAY’S LAWS OF ELECTROLYSIS :

1) Electro plating is a process of ________________ of costlier or less corrodible metals on a base metal.

Ans: coating a thin film

2) _____________ is a method of obtaining exact copy of an engraved block containing letters or figures by the methods of electrolysis.

Ans : Electro-typing

3) The vessel which contains an electrolyte and allows electrolysis to take place is called a ________

Ans : Voltameter or Electrolytic Cell

4) For refining and extracting metals ______ is used.

Ans: electrolysis

MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF ELECTRIC CURRENT :

1) The direction of force (F) on the conductor in Fleming’s Left Hand Rule is represented in ______

Ans : Thumb

2) _______ Ammeter is used to measure the current in an electric circuit.

Ans: Ammeter

3) ___________ is used to measure potential difference .

Ans : Voltameter

4) If a wire carrying current is bent in the form of a circular loop, the magnetic field around the wire loop will be ___________ to the plane of the wire.

Ans : perpendicular

5) Ampere’s law concerned with the force on a wire carrying a current in a ________ field.

Ans : magnetic

6) Two parallel wires carrying current in the same direction _______ each other.

Ans : attract

7) Two parallel long conductors carrying current in the opposite direction will ________

Ans : repel

PRINCIPLE OF WORKING OF AN ELECTRIC MOTOR:

1) Electric motor converts electrical energy into _______ energy

Ans : mechanical

2)The rectangular coil and iorn core in electric motor constitute_____

Ans : armature

3) RPM stands for _________

Ans : rotations per minutes

4) An ___________ consists of a rectangular coil of permanent magnet two metallic half-rings and an energy source.

Ans: electric motor

5) Current carrying rectangular coil behaves as a __________

Ans: magnet

6) A current carrying coil is subjected to a magnetic force, which rotates the coil imparting it a ______ energy.

Ans : kinetic

7) If the coil is made to rotate continuously, electric energy is converted into mechanical energy such an arrangement is called an _______

Ans : electric motor

8) Commutator is a device to reverse the direction of the _________

Ans : current

9) The commutator rotates with the ________

Ans : Shaft

10) A.C. stands for _______

Ans : Alternating Current

11) In A.C. motor , there is no need for a ______ to reverse the current.

Ans: commutator

12) A D.C. motor can have a efficiency less than _______

Ans : one

ELECTRO-MAGNETIC INDUCTION:

1) Large amount of electricity is produced with the help of machines called ________

Ans : dynamos or generators

2) Dynamo converts mechanical energy into _______

Ans : electrical energy

3) A relative motion of a magnet and a coil induces _____ in the coil

Ans : induced

4) The moving magnet at higher speed causes the magnetic ________

Ans : flux

5) Dynamo works on the principle of electromagnetic ________

Ans : induction

6) The electricity that is supplied to our houhold appliance is generated by dynamos at _______

Ans : hydroelectric stations

7) The phenomenon of electromagnetic induction was discovered by ________

Ans : Faraday

8) A magnetic is moved inside a coil of wire with its south pole moving inside the coil. Then the current flows through the coil in the ______ direction.

Ans : clockwise

9) A magnet is moved inside a coil of wire with its north pole moving inside the coil. Then current flows through the coil in the ____ direction.

Ans : anticlockwise

10) An A.C. current is one which varies periodically with time reversing the direction every _____ cycle.

Ans : half

11) Rapid rotating of the armature in the dynamo generates current or voltages in the external circuit whose direction alternates in each half cycle. Such current are called ________

Ans: alternating current

12) The phenomenon of mutual inductance is utilized in the development of an electrical device called _________

Ans: Transformer

13) A transformer is an electric device which either increases or decreases the magnitude of an _____ voltage by utilizing the phenomenon of electromagnetic induction.

Ans : alternating

14) A transformer works on the principle of _____ using mutual inductance of two coils.

Ans : electromagnetic induction

15) All houses or industries are connected in ____ in main supply.

Ans: parallel

16) The transformer with number of turns in the secondary coil smaller than that in the primary coil is called ______ transformer

Ans : Step-down

17) The transformer with number of turns in the secondary coil larger than that in the primary coil is called _____ transformer

Ans : step – up

18) Power transmission is carried out in the form of high voltage and ______ current, so that energy losses are reduced.

Ans : low

19) A transformer uses ______ to minimize power losses

Ans : iron core

20) In a strep-up transformer , voltage in the secondary coil increases and current ______

Ans : decreases

21) A transformer works on _____ circuits only.

Ans : A.C.

22) In an ideal transformer the input power is equal to ________

Ans : output power

23) The efficiency of a transformer is always less than _______

Ans : one

24) A choke coil has low inductance and ______ resistance

Ans : high

25) Domestic supply of voltage is ______

Ans : 220 volts

26) ________ transmission is carried out in the form of high voltage and low current.

Ans : power

27) The bulk of electricity is generated at ________ power stations

Ans hydro electric

28) In power stations, mechanical energy is converted into ______ energy

Ans : electric

29) The commercial generators work on the principle of a ________

Ans: dynamo

30) Electricity is transmitted by a _____ system using pylon.

Ans : grid

31) Pylons are high structures of towers to which _____ lines are connected

Ans : high tension or H.T.

32) A net work of H.T. supply system in a region is called a ____ grid

Ans : power

33) In a step down transformer the current _______

Ans : increases

34) For making core of a transformer , the material is ______

Ans : soft iron

35) A transformer uses _____ core to minimize power loss

Ans : iron

36) The feeder stations in A.P. are ______

Ans : 150

37) The 33 K.V. is supplied to about ____ stations

Ans : 50

38) The power transmission utilizes _____ at different points on the transmission lines.

Ans : transformer

39) Eddy currents are set up in a metallic block kept to varying ______ field.

Ans : magnetic

40) Energy loss due to eddy currents can be minimized in a transformer by laminating the core of the ________.

Ans : transformer

41) A choke is a coil of _________

Ans: Pure inductance

42) A choke is used to limit an __________

Ans : alternating current

43) Which type of current can be transmitted over a long distances easily______

Ans : A.C.

44) For electroplating we can use _______

Ans : D.C.

45) _______ is used to convert mechanical energy into electrical energy

Ans : Dynamo or generator

46) A relative motion of a magnet and coil induces ______ in the coil

Ans : current

47) The principle of working of a dynamo is the law of _______

Ans : Electromagnetic induction

48) A _____ is a electrical device which either increases or decreases the magnitude of an alternating voltage.

Ans : transformer

49) A transformer works on the principle of ______

Ans : electromagnetic induction

50) An example of ohmic conductor is ______

Ans : copper wire

51) If 12 amperes current is passed through a wire for 10 seconds, the amount of charge is ______

Ans: 120 coulombs

52) A charge of 480 coulombs is flowing in 2 minutes through an electric bulb. The current flowing in the bulb is _____

Ans : 4 amp

53) On every day a 60W bulb is used for 4 hours. The amount of energy utilized in 30 days in kilowatt hours is _______

Ans : 7.2

54) An immersed heater is connected to a line of 220 volts for half an hour. If it draws a current of 16.8 A, the heat developed by it is ______

Ans : 1.584 x 10⁶ calories

55) The conversion of an A.C. into D.C. can be achieved by _________

Ans : a rectifier circuit

56) A transformer works on the principle of ______ induction.

Ans : mutual

57) A transformer uses iron core to ______

Ans : minimize losses

58) The unit of self inductance is _________

Ans : Henry

PHYSICS – 4

MODER PHYSICS

ATOMIC STRUCTURE:

1) Atom of an element , is electrically _________

Ans : neutral

2) The smallest unit of element, which carries all the properties of the element is called an _______

Ans : atom

3) Who discovered electrons?

Ans : J J Thomson

4) The electrons in an atom revolve around the nucleus in circular orbits just like ______ revolve around the Sun.

Ans : planets

5) Rutherford atomic model consists of ________ massive nucleus at the centre with electrons revolving round it.

Ans: positively charged

6) The electron has a _______ energy in a stationary orbit.

Ans: definite

7) If an electron jumps from lower stationary orbit to higher, energy is ______

Ans : absorbed

8) When an electron jumps from higher stationary orbit to lower energy orbit, energy is _____

Ans : released

9) The space between electron and proton is _______

Ans : vacuum

10) Proton is a _________

Ans : positively charged particle

11) Who discovered protons ?

Ans : Rutherford and Goldstein

12) The alfa – particle is a _______ charged particle

Ans : positively

ATOMIC NUMBER, ATOMIC MASS AND MASS DEFECT :

1) Atomic number of an element indicates the number of _______ in an atom

Ans : protons or electrons

2) AMU stands for _____

Ans : Atomic Mass Unit

3) Mass Number is the sum of number of protons and number of _________

Ans: Neutrons

4) Neutron is discovered by ____ in 1932

Ans : Chadwick

5) Neutron is electrically ________

Ans : neutral

6) The number of protons in an atom is defined as ____________

Ans : atomic number

7) The mass of an atom is measured in ______

Ans : atomic mass unit or a.m.u.

8) ________ is the difference between the sum of the individual masses of constituents in a nucleus and the mass of the nucleus itself.

Ans : Mass defect

9) According to Einstein mass energy relation ____________

Ans : E = Dmc²

10) Atomic number is also called ______ number

Ans : proton

11) Atomic number is denoted by _________

Ans : Z

12) Protons are also equal to the number of ______ in a neutral atom

Ans : electrons

13) The mass of one proton is ___________

Ans : 1.0078 a.m.u

14) The mass of one neutron is __________

Ans : 1.0087 a.m.u.

15) An isotope which is used in the determination of age of fossils is _________

Ans : Radio Carbon

16) Mass defect = ______________

Ans : ( sum of individual masses of constituents – actual mass of the nucleus)

17) The relation between mass and energy conversion was postulated by _______

Ans : Albert Einstein

18) Oxygen atom contains _________

Ans : 8 protons and 8 neutrons

RADIOACTIVITY:

1) The alpha – particle is a __________ charged particle.

Ans : positively

2) The mass of beta particle is the same as the mass of ________

Ans : electron

3) Isobars are the elements with same mass _______

Ans : number

4) Ionising power is highest in the case of ________

Ans : alpha – particles

5) Penetrating capacity is highest for _______

Ans : gamma-rays

6) The electromagnetic radiation observed in radio activity is ________

Ans : gamma – rays

7) Radioactivity was discovered by _______

Ans : Henry Bequerel

8) Fluorescence is the ability of certain substances to transform incident ultraviolet radiation into ________ light.

Ans : visible

9) Uranium ore is _____

Ans : Pitch blend

10) Alpha, beta, gamma radiations are emitted by ________

Ans: radioactive nuclei

11) An alpha particle is consists of two protons and two ________

Ans : neutrons

12) The speed of alpha particles in air is ________

Ans : 10 ⁷ m/s

13) Beta particles are electrons originating in the _______

Ans: nucleus

14) Gamma rays travel with the speed of ________

Ans : light

15) Gamma rays are unaffected by __________

Ans : electric and magnetic field

16) Gamma – rays can easily destroy human _______

Ans : cells

17) Gamma rays are used to kill cancer cells in the treatment of ______

Ans : Cancer

18) Radon is an ____ gas

Ans: inert

19) Alfa particle is _____ charges particle.

Ans : positively

20) When alfa particles is emitted, the atomic number of an atom increases _______

Ans : 2 units

21) Moderator in a nuclear reactor reduces the _____ of the neutrons.

Ans : speed

22) Fusion reactions take place in ________

Ans : Stars

23) Uranium-235 is an isotope used in the determination of ______

Ans : age of rocks

24) Carbon-14 is an isotope used in the determination of ______

Ans: age of fossils

25) The process of transformation of one element into another artificial means of bombarding it with high energy particles is known as _________

Ans : artificial transmutation

26) Artificial transmutation was discovered by _______

Ans : Rutherford

27) Functioning of the Thyroid gland can be tested by _______

Ans : 131- Iodine isotope

28) ______is process in which a heavy nucleon, when bombarded with neutrons, splits into two nuclei of nearly equal mass with the release of enormous amount of energy.

Ans : Nuclear fusion

29) Nuclear fission was discovered by _____

Ans : Otto Hahn

30) An average of _____ of energy is released per fission of an Uranium atom.

Ans : 200 MeV

31) A ______ is a series of nuclear fissions whereby the neutrons produced in each fission cause additional fissions.

Ans : Chain Reaction

32) The material that slows down the neutrons in a nuclear reactor is called as __________

Ans: moderator

33) An uncontrolled chain reaction occurs in __________

Ans : atom bomb

34) In nuclear reactor control rods are made of ________

Ans : Cadmium or boron

35) ___________ is a reaction in which light nuclei are combined together to form a heavier product nucleus with the use release of enormous amount of energy.

Ans : Fusion

36) A radioactive isotope is called a radio _____

An s: isotope

37) Radioactive cobalt is used to detect internal ______ in the cast material

Ans : flaws

38) Radio carbon dating is done by estimating in the specimen by the ratio of ______

An s: C-14 / C-122

39) The radio isotope used to cure cancer is _______

Ans : Cobalt isotope

40) In U-235 chain fission, chain is installed by a ______

Ans : neutron

41) Nuclear fusion is opposite to ______

Ans : nuclear fission

42) Radio isotopes formed by nuclear transmutation are rarely found in nature because they have very short _____ period.

Ans : half life

43) The fusion reactions require high temperatures, are also called _______

Ans : thermo nuclear reactions.

44) The _____ cycles are responsible for energies of the stars like the Sun.

Ans : proton

45) The principle of hydrogen bomb is _____________

Ans : uncontrolled fusion reaction

46) The material that slows down the neutrons in a nuclear reactor is called ______

Ans : moderator

47) The fuel used in a nuclear reactor is _____________

Ans : Uranium – 235

48) The projectiles used in a fission of U-235 are ________

Ans : neutrons

49) The relation between mass and energy was postulated by _______

Ans : Albert Einstein

50) The reason for using cadmium rods in nuclear reactor is ________

Ans : to absorb neutrons

51) The time taken by radioactive element to disintegrate completely ________

Ans : infinite

52) In a nuclear reactor cadmium is used as a _________

Ans : Control Rod

53) In a nuclear reactor, graphite is used as ___________

Ans : moderator

54) In a nuclear reactor entire region of a fuel elements is known as ________

Ans : Reactor core

PHYSICS – 5

ELECTRONICS

Band Theory of Solids :

1) Rubber is __________

Ans : Insulator

2) A very poor conductor of electricity is called an _______

Ans : Insulator

3) Metals are ______ of electricity

Ans : good conductors

4) The energy gap of conductor is ______

Ans : zero

5) The conductivity of a semiconductor depends on its _________

Ans : temperature

6) The absence of an electron is the valence band of a semiconductor is called a _______

Ans : hole

7) Hole is a _______ charge carrier of current

Ans : positive

8) Both holes and electrons are the _______ in a semiconductor

Ans : charge carriers

9) Semi – conductors are classified in to how many types?

Ans : Two

10) Semiconductors are classified into two type. They are_____

Ans : 1) Intrinsic 2) Extrinsic semiconductors

11) Insulators are _____ conductors of electricity.

Ans : poor

12) Insulators are poor conductors of electricity because the energy gap is relating large and the concentration of ____ is small

Ans : electrons

13) Substances that conduct electricity are known as ______

Ans : electric conductors

14) The flow of ______ constitutes an electric current

Ans : electron

15) An example for p-type semi-conductor is _____

Ans : Silicon with Aluminium as impurity

16) The number of free electrons are more in _________

Ans : copper

17) The energy gap is highest in the case of _______

Ans : insulator

18) When temperature of a semi-conductor is raised, the energy gap _______

Ans: decreases

19) By whom the charge carried in a semi-conductor

Ans : electrons and holes

INTRINSIC AND EXTRINSIC SEMI-CONDUCTORS:

1) Purre semiconductors are called _____ semi-conductors

Ans: intrinsic

2) In n-type semiconductor the majority carriers are ________

Ans: electrons

3) To make silicon a p-type semiconductor, the impurity to be doped is ______

Ans : aluminium

4) Introducing impurities in very small quantities into a material is called ______

Ans : doping

5) ______ semi conductors are the semiconductors doped with desired impurity.

Ans : Extrinsic

6) Depending on the type of impurity extrinsic semi-conductors are how many types?

Ans : Two types

1) p-type

2) n-type

7) Trivalent impurities are called ________

Ans :acceptors

8) Pentavalent impurities are called ________

Ans : donors

9) Phosphorous is a _________ impurity

Ans : pentavelent

10) Aluminium is a _____ impurity

Ans : trivalent

11) p-type and n-type semi-conductors are electrically______

Ans : neutral

12) An example for intrinsic conductor is ________

Ans : germanium

13) A semiconductor acts as an insulator at _______

Ans : 0° K

14) The charge carriers in a semiconductor are ________

Ans : electrons and holes

JUNCTION DIOIDE-PROPERTIES AND USES:

1) A Diode offers ______ resistance under reverse bias condition

Ans : high

2) In rectifier circuits _____ are used.

Ans: diodes

3) p-type semi-conductor has excess number of _______

Ans : holes

4) n-type semi – conductor has excess number of _______

Ans : electrons

5) LED means ______

Ans : Light Emitting Diode

6) What is Diode?

Ans : It is a rectifier

7) ______ are used in digital clock and digital calculators

Ans: LEDs

8) LEDs _____ on supply of current

Ans: glrow

TRANSISOTRS – PROPERTIES AND USES:

1) The three terminals of a transistors are called ___________ and ________

Ans : Emitter, base, collector

2) Transistors are used in ________ which produce signals of different frequencies.

Ans : oscillators

3) The transistor was invented by _________

Ans : J.Bardeen, W.H.Brattain and William Shockley

4) The transistor is a small semi-conductor device which is at the _____ of the modern day electronic appliances.

Ans : heart

5) A transistor is a combination of two _____ joined back to back.

Ans : diodes

6) A transistor consists of 3 terminals namely, emitter, base and _______

Ans : collector

7) I.C. stands for ________

Ans : Integrated Circuits

8) Integrated circuits are called ____

Ans : Chips

9) Transistor act as _________

Ans : amplifier

10) Chips are important in the ______

Ans: micro electronic systems

RADIO AND TELEVISION – BASIC PRINCIPLES OF WORKING :

1) r.f. stands for _________

Ans : Radio frequency

2) The process of fixing messages to r.f. carrier waves is called __________

Ans : modulation

3) A.M. is the abbreviation for ___________

Ans : Amplitude Modulation

4) At home the r.f. modulated carrier wave is received by _________

Ans : aerial or antenna

5) Electromagnetic waves in radio frequency range are used for _____ and ______ communication.

Ans : Radio and R.V.

6) FM is the abbreviation for _________

Ans : Frequency Modulation

7) The process of extracting information from the modulated r.f. carrier waves is called ________

Ans : demodulation

8) ________ produces electromagnetic waves of different frequencies

Ans : Induction coil

9) For radio communication the range of carrier frequency is from about ______

Ans : 300 KHz to 30 MHz

10) For television communication frequency range of carriers is from about ________

Ans : 30 MHz to 300 MHz

11) Modulated waves are sent into space by a ________

Ans : transmitting antenna

12) The three states in radio or TV communication are ________

Ans : 1) production of messages 2) transmission 3) detection

13) _______ modulate r.f. waves carrying messages

Ans : Transmitters

14) ______ is a process of dividing an image on the screen into a large number of very small squares formed by sets of horizontal and vertical straight lines.

Ans : Scanning

15) Tuning circuits are also called as _______

Ans : Channel selector

16) TV is known as ______

Ans : Kinescope

17) _______ is a camera consisting of a cathode ray beam and a photo cell.

Ans : Iconoscope

18) Now a days ______ is used for scanning prupose.

Ans : Iconoscope

19) Induction coil produces ______ waves of different frequencies

Ans : Electromagnetic (EM)

20) Radio waves travel through _______ over a long distances and can be used as carriers of messages

Ans : space

21) Messages are converted into ______ signals

Ans : electrical

22) Electrical signals re superimposed on _______

Of suitable high (radio) frerquency

Ans : electromagnetic waves

23) The frequencies used in TV communications are in the range of 30 MHz to _____

Ans : 300 MHJz

24) The name of the camera which consists of a cathode ray beam and photocell is _______

Ans : Iconoscope

COMPUTER – BASIC PRINCIPLES OF WORKING :

1) IC means________

Ans : Integrated Circuit

2) Key board is an _______

Ans :Input device

3) A set of _______ is called a programme

Ans : instructions

4) A CPU consists of ______________

Ans : Control Unit (CU), Memory, Arithmetic Logic Unit(ALU)

5) A ______ language is independent of machine

Ans : high level

6) ASSEMBLER is a ______ language

Ans : machine

7) A semi conductor consisting of combinations of large number o f diodes and transistors in it is called ___________

Ans : Integrated Circuit or Chip

8) A _______ is a combination of ICs

Ans : Microprocessor

9) Data and instructions are supplied to the computer through an _______

Ans : Input device

10) CPU means ________

Ans : Central Processing Unit

11) Printer is an _______

Ans : Output device

12) _______ is the heart of the computer

Ans : CPU

13) The number system, consists of only two digits 0 and 1 is called ______ system

Ans : binary

14) A binary digit either 1 or 0 is called a ______

Ans : bit

15) In BCD code the first four bits are called Zero bits and the remaining

four bits are called _____ bits

Ans : numeric

16) ___________language is internal language of the computer

Ans: Machine

17) Machine language depends on ______ of a computer

Ans : Hardware

18) BASIC is a ________ language

Ans : high level

19) A Compiler translates ________________________________

Ans : a high level programme to machine language instructions

20) Computer programme can be written in ___________ language

Ans : high level

21) All the physical components like CPU input and output devices put together are called _____ of the computer

Ans : Hardware

22) The electronic circuits are called _________

Ans : logic circuits

23) A combination of ICs is called a __________

Ans : microprocessor

24) Data and instructions are supplied through an ________

Ans : input devices (like Keyboard, mouse, Scanner, Camera, Joy Stick etc.)

25) The microprocessor (Chip) also consists of a second component called _______

Ans : Memory

26) the last component of the microprocessor (Chip) is called ________

Ans : Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU)

27) The Printer or a visible screen is called ______

Ans : Monitor

28) The output device is _________

Ans : Monitor

29) The combination of CU, Memo and ALU is _________

Ans : CPU or Central Processing Unit

30) A computer uses a number system different from our ______ system

Ans: decimal

31) The number system consists of two digits i.e., zero and ________, in computers

And : one

32) The digit zero or one is called _________

Ans : bit

33) In BCD , the 4 bits are called ____________

Ans : Zonal bits

34) The function of a Compiler is to _____________

Ans : translate the high level language instructions into machine language

35) Byte is formed by __________

Ans : a group of 8 bits

36) A set of instructions is called a __________

Ans : programme

CHEMISTRY & INDUSTRY:

1) Cement is a mixture of _________

Ans : Calcium Silicate and aluminates

2) Glass – blowing is possible with _______

Ans : Pyrex glass

3) Terra – cotta articles are _______

Ans : Porous

4) Which gives colour to the fibre?

Ans : Chromophore

5) Chief component of cooking gas (LPG) is ____

Ans : Butane

6) _________________ gives blue colour to the glass

Ans: Cobalt oxide

7) The chemical composition of talc is ____

Ans : Magnesium silicate

8) What is insulin ?

Ans : It is a harmone

9) For making bottles, which type of glass is used ?

Ans : Soda Glass

10) For making optics, which type of glass is used ?

Ans : Flint glass

11) For making laboratory glassware, which type of glass is used ?

Ans : Pyrex glass

12) Cooking gas is known as ____

Ans : LPG (Liquid Petroleum Gas)

13) Example of natural manure is _____

Ans : Compost

14) Glass is a mixture of _______

Ans : sodium silicate, calcium silicate and sand

15) The natural gas is _______________

Ans: methane ( CH4)

16) Another name of petrol is ________

Ans: Gasoline

17) Domestic Gas Cylinder contains a mixture of ____________

Ans : Propane, Butane and Propine

18) Shaving soap contains excess of ___________

Ans : Stearic acid

OILS & FATS:

1) Detergents are used even in _______ because Ca+ and Ma+2 react with hard water ions but do not form precipitate

Ans : Hard Water

2) Examples for saturated fatty acids?

Ans : Lauric, Myristic, Palmitic, Stearic acids

3) Examples for Unsaturated fatty acids?

Ans : Myriscoleic, Palmitoleic, Oleic, Linoleic, Linoleinic acids

4) Hydrogenation of oils give _____

Ans : Fats (Vanaspathi)

5) How Dalda(Vanaspathi) is manufactured ?

Ans : Dalda is a fat obtained by the catalytic hydrogenation of vegetable oil

6) Soaps are ____________

Ans : sodium salt or potassium salt of fatty acid of long carbon chains

7) Soaps contain 30% of _______

Ans : water

8) Detergents differ from soap in their action with __________

Ans : Hard water

9) Detergents are ___________

Ans: sodium salts of alkyl benzene sulphonates or fatty alcohol sulphates

10) No. of amino acids known so far _______

Ans : 26

CARBOHYDRATES AND PROTEINS :

1) Sweetest sugar is_____________

Ans : Fructose

2) The sugar content of molasses is _____

Ans : 50%

3) Consumption of denatured spirit causes __

Ans : Unconsciousness

4) Sukrose is broken down into _____ and ______ during fermentation.

Ans: Glucose , fructose

5) _______________ enzyme breaks the sucrose.

Ans : Invertase

6) Beer is made from ____

Ans : Barley

7) Non-sugars are found in ________

Ans : rice, pulses and potato

8) Starch and cellulose are examples of _________

Ans : polysaccharides

9) Cellulose in the form of cotton is useful for _________

Ans : our clothing

10) Starch is tested by which solution ?

Ans : iodine solution

11) Iodine solution turns starch solution into _____ in colour

Ans : blue

12) The sugar of our daily use, is mainly obtained from ________

Ans : sugar cane

13) Sugarcane contains 11 – 15% of ______ by weight.

Ans : sucrose

14) Line is added to neutralize sugar cane juice in ________

Ans : sugar industry

15) Which is called as mother liquor ?

Ans : Molasses

16) Ethyl alcohol is produced by fermentation of molasses by ______

Ans : yeast

17) Consumption of denatured spirit causes ____________

Ans: blindness and death

18) Ethyl alcohol mixed with pyridine or methyl alcohol is called as ______

Ans : denatured spirit

19) Amino acids are building blocks of _________

Ans : Proteins

20) Essential amino acids must be supplied to human body through ______ only

Ans : diet

21) Out of 26 amino acids, human body cannot synthesise how many amino acids ?

Ans : Nine amino acids. These nine amino acids are also called as essential amino acids

22) Sickel cell haemoglobin causes a disease called as _______________

Ans : Sickle cell anemia

23) Which is present in skin, hair, nails, wool, horn, and feathers?

Ans :Keratine

24) Which regulates blood sugar level ?

Ans : Insuline

25) The beverage which contains high percentage of alcohol is _______

Ans : brandy

CHEMISTRY OF CARBON COMPOUNDS:

1) The refractive index of diamond is ____

Ans : 2.45

2) The chemical name of washing soda is _______

Ans : sodium carbonate

3) In diamonds and graphites which is common ?

Ans : Carbon

4) The occurrence of same element in two or more different forms I called as ________

Ans : allotropy

5) Diamond reflects light falling on it , making it shine. What is the reason ?

Ans : refractive index

6) Why diamond is used as glass cutter ?

Ans : due to its hardness

7) Graphite is used as ______

Ans : lubricant

8) Which gas accumulates in caves and mines ?

Ans : Carbon dioxide ( because carbondioxide is heavier than air )

9) Carbon dioxide is soluble in _______

Ans : Water

10) Carbon dioxide is used in the preparation of ____________

Ans : Soda water and cool drinks

11) Which gas is used as fire extinguisher ?

Ans: Carbon dioxide

12) Coal deposits are called as ______

Ans: Store of Sun

13) Anthracite coal contains 95% of ________

Ans : carbon

14) The commonest variety of coal is __________

Ans : bituminous coal or stone coal

15) Bituminous coal contains ________ of carbon.

Ans : 82%

16) Lignite coal contains how much of carbon ?

Ans : 70%

17) Ethyne is commonly known as _________

Ans : acetylene

18) Acetylene is used in __________

Ans : welding, artificial ripening of fruits

19) The allotrope of carbon which has tetrahedral structure is ___________

Ans : Graphite

20) Polythene is obtained from ethylene by the __________

Ans : poluymerization

ACIDS, BASES AND SALTS :

1) What is colour of methyl orange indicator in acidic medium ?

Ans : Red

2) What is the colour of phenolphthalein indicator in basic solution?

Ans : Pink

3) The pH (point of hydrogen) of gastric juice is__________

Ans : 1 – 2

4) The pH of acids is in the range of ______

Ans : 0 to 7

5) The pH of bases is in the range of _______

Ans : 7 to 14

6) Human blood pH is _______

Ans : more than 7 (i.e., 7.32 to 7.45)

7) Acids turn blue litmus to ______

Ans : red

8) Bases turn red litmus to ______

Ans : blue

9) pH was introduced by ______

Ans : Sorensen

10) pH of pure water is ________

Ans : 7

11) pH of urine is _______

Ans : 4.8 to 7.5

12) Acids reacts with metal and gives _______

Ans : hydrogen

SOLUTIONS:

1) The common name of so0dium thiosulphate is _______

Ans : hypo

2) Soda is a solution of carbondioxide in ______

Ans : water

3) Naphthalene dissolves in ________

Ans : Kerosene

4) Naphthalene is not soluble in _____

Ans : Water

5) Sodium chloride in water is ___________

Ans : strong electrolyte

ALKALINE EARTH METALS :

1) Carnalite is one of ore of _____

Ans : magnesium

2) Epson salt is the mineral of ______

Ans : magnesium metal

3) Magnesium reacts with _______

Ans : Hot water

4) Radium is a _______

Ans : radioactive element

5) The element which gives dazzling light (Deepavali crackers) when burnt in air is _____

Ans : Magnesium

6) Dolomite is the mineral of _______

Ans : magnesium

PERIODIC CLASIFICATIN OF ELEMENTS:

1) Mendeleef’s periodic table is based on the _________

Ans : atomic weight

2) Eka aluminium is _______

Ans : gallium

3) Eka boron is _____

Ans : scandium

4) Removal of hydrogen is called as _____

Ans: oxidation

5) Addition of hydrogen or removal of oxygen is called as ______

Ans : reduction

6) The first classification of elements is attempted by _____

Ans : Dobereiner

CHEMICAL BOND:

1) Complete transfer of electrons from one atom to another leads to the formation of _______

Ans : ionic bond

2) Oxygen has _____ lone pairs of electrons in water molecule

Ans : two

3) Water molecule has ______ shape bond. Water molecule is in non-linear bond.

Ans : ‘V ‘ (English letter V)

4) Ammonia molecule has _______ shape bond.

Ans : pyramidal

ATOMIC STRUCTURE :

1) Bohr’s theory is valid for ___________

Ans : any atom or ion having one electron

2) The scientist who invented elliptical orbits is _________

Ans : Sommerfield

3) Rutherford proposed planetary model based on his ________ scattering experiment.

Ans : alfa – ray

4) Quantum theory of radiation is proposed by ________

Ans : Max planck

5) Electron was discovered by ________

Ans : J .J.Thomson

6) The nucleus of an atom is made up of protons and neutrons and so they are known as ____

Ans : nucleons

7) Rutherford’s model of atom is also known as planetary model or ______ model.

Ans : nuclear

8) The splitting of spectral lines when atom is put in magnetic field is called ______

Ans : Zeeman’s effect

9) Atomic sizes are expressed in ______ units.

Ans : Angstrom

10) An alfa particle consists of _________

Ans : two protons, two neutrons

11) The element having no neutron in its nucleus is ________

Ans : Hydrogen

12) Chadwick discovered _______

Ans : neutrons

13) Who discovered protons ?

Ans : Rutherford and Goldstein

14) Hydrogen atom gets stability by achieving the configuration of ________

Ans : Helium